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cupnjava- 10-30-2007
Suppose or supposed?
This is where my ears are tricking me into thinking something is correct when it might not be. In this sentence: I knew priests were suppose to live humbly and took a vow of poverty, but I also knew I’d, personally, given enough money to the church to repair this old home. should it be supposed to or suppose to? With the "se" sound right next to the "t" sound, they sound the same to me. >.<

kmfrontain- 10-30-2007

Supposed. The "to" belongs to "live". To live: infinitive form of live. Supposed belongs to was: was supposed. Supposed is being a kind of adjective. It's describing priests. A verb is called a participle when it's being something not quite a verb in a sentence. In this case, supposed is a past participle. Are you still awake? :wink: You see a participle acting more clearly as an adjective here: The dogs were hopped on beer. They were hopped dogs.

Dusk- 10-30-2007

(Writer who barely made it through high school grammar takes notes.) Here's "Merriam-Webster's Dictionary of English Usage" on this topic: * * * *Supposed to* is indistinguishable in speech from *suppose to* - the d is not pronounced. For this reason the unwary sometimes omit it in writing as well. Many commentators warn against this error, and we imagine that its occurrence in casual writing is not rare, but we have only one examle of it from a published source: "He's suppose to make us respect our city's Finest . . ." --Media & Methods, November 1968 Even here, it is likely that the d was deliberately omitted to suggest nonstandard speech (somewhat pointlessly, since, as noted above, *suppose to* and *supposed to* sound alike when spoken). See also USED TO, USE TO. * * *

cupnjava- 10-30-2007

Thanks guys! Use to and used to drive me nuts also. I cheat and use "accustomed to" because I can't figure it out. Back in the day, we used to go to drive in's for burgers. He is use to having his coffee with breakfast. Umm...right?

Dusk- 10-31-2007

Sorry, no. :) They're both "used to." According to my usage dictionary, the only time "use to" is proper (and then only in American English, which explains why this is news to me) is in these circumstances: "The form considered correct following *did*, at least in American English, is *use to*. Just as we say 'Did he want to?" rather than 'Did he wanted to?' so we say 'Did he use to?' rather than 'Did he used to?'" So it's "Didn't he use to go with Laura?" but it's "He is used to having his coffee with breakfast."

cupnjava- 10-31-2007

Sorry, no. :) They're both "used to." According to my usage dictionary, the only time "use to" is proper (and then only in American English, which explains why this is news to me) is in these circumstances: "The form considered correct following *did*, at least in American English, is *use to*. Just as we say 'Did he want to?" rather than 'Did he wanted to?' so we say 'Did he use to?' rather than 'Did he used to?'" So it's "Didn't he use to go with Laura?" but it's "He is used to having his coffee with breakfast." Thank you! I used to never have these kinds of problems when writing, then I started thinking about writing. I suppose I'm over thinking things again.

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